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- QUESTION POOL
- ELEMENT 3B (GENERAL CLASS)
- as released by
- Question Pool Committee
- National Conference of
- Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
- December 1, 1993
-
- SUBELEMENT G1 - COMMISSION'S RULES [4 exam questions - 4 groups]
-
- G1A General control operator frequency privileges; local
- control, repeater and harmful interference definitions, third-
- party communications
-
- G1A01 (C) [97.301d]
- What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
- 160-meter band?
- A. 1800 - 1900 kHz
- B. 1900 - 2000 kHz
- C. 1800 - 2000 kHz
- D. 1825 - 2000 kHz
-
- G1A02 (A) [97.301d]
- What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
- 75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
- A. 3525 - 3750 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz
- B. 3525 - 3775 kHz and 3875 - 4000 kHz
- C. 3525 - 3750 kHz and 3875 - 4000 kHz
- D. 3525 - 3775 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz
-
- G1A03 (D) [97.301d]
- What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
- 40-meter band (ITU Region 2)?
- A. 7025 - 7175 kHz and 7200 - 7300 kHz
- B. 7025 - 7175 kHz and 7225 - 7300 kHz
- C. 7025 - 7150 kHz and 7200 - 7300 kHz
- D. 7025 - 7150 kHz and 7225 - 7300 kHz
-
- G1A04 (A) [97.301d]
- What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
- 30-meter band?
- A. 10100 - 10150 kHz
- B. 10100 - 10175 kHz
- C. 10125 - 10150 kHz
- D. 10125 - 10175 kHz
-
- G1A05 (B) [97.301d]
- What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
- 20-meter band?
- A. 14025 - 14100 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz
- B. 14025 - 14150 kHz and 14225 - 14350 kHz
- C. 14025 - 14125 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz
- D. 14025 - 14175 kHz and 14250 - 14350 kHz
-
- G1A06 (D) [97.301d]
- What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
- 15-meter band?
- A. 21025 - 21200 kHz and 21275 - 21450 kHz
- B. 21025 - 21150 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz
- C. 21025 - 21150 kHz and 21275 - 21450 kHz
- D. 21025 - 21200 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHz
-
- G1A07 (A) [97.301d]
- What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
- 12-meter band?
- A. 24890 - 24990 kHz
- B. 24890 - 24975 kHz
- C. 24900 - 24990 kHz
- D. 24900 - 24975 kHz
-
- G1A08 (A) [97.301d]
- What are the frequency limits for General class operators in the
- 10-meter band?
- A. 28000 - 29700 kHz
- B. 28025 - 29700 kHz
- C. 28100 - 29600 kHz
- D. 28125 - 29600 kHz
-
- G1A09 (A) [97.305c]
- What are the frequency limits within the 160-meter band for phone
- emissions?
- A. 1800 - 2000 kHz
- B. 1800 - 1900 kHz
- C. 1825 - 2000 kHz
- D. 1825 - 1900 kHz
-
- G1A10 (C) [97.305a]
- What are the frequency limits within the 80-meter band in ITU
- Region 2 for CW emissions?
- A. 3500 - 3750 kHz
- B. 3700 - 3750 kHz
- C. 3500 - 4000 kHz
- D. 3890 - 4000 kHz
-
- G1A11 (D) [97.305c]
- What are the frequency limits within the 40-meter band in ITU
- Region 2 for image emissions?
- A. 7225 - 7300 kHz
- B. 7000 - 7150 kHz
- C. 7100 - 7150 kHz
- D. 7150 - 7300 kHz
-
- G1A12 (C) [97.305c]
- What are the frequency limits within the 30-meter band for RTTY
- emissions?
- A. 10125 - 10150 kHz
- B. 10125 - 10140 kHz
- C. 10100 - 10150 kHz
- D. 10100 - 10140 kHz
-
- G1A13 (B) [97.305c]
- What are the frequency limits within the 20-meter band for image
- emissions?
- A. 14025 - 14300 kHz
- B. 14150 - 14350 kHz
- C. 14025 - 14350 kHz
- D. 14150 - 14300 kHz
-
- G1A14 (C) [97.305c]
- What are the frequency limits within the 15-meter band for image
- emissions?
- A. 21250 - 21300 kHz
- B. 21150 - 21450 kHz
- C. 21200 - 21450 kHz
- D. 21100 - 21300 kHz
-
- G1A15 (C) [97.305c]
- What are the frequency limits within the 12-meter band for phone
- emissions?
- A. 24890 - 24990 kHz
- B. 24890 - 24930 kHz
- C. 24930 - 24990 kHz
- D. Phone emissions are not permitted in this band
-
- G1A16 (C) [97.305c]
- What are the frequency limits within the 10-meter band for phone
- emissions?
- A. 28000 - 28300 kHz
- B. 29000 - 29700 kHz
- C. 28300 - 29700 kHz
- D. 28000 - 29000 kHz
-
- G1A17 (B) [97.119d]
- As a General class control operator at a Novice station, how must
- you identify your station when transmitting on 7250 kHz?
- A. With your call sign, followed by the word "controlling" and
- the Novice call sign
- B. With the Novice call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or
- any suitable word) and your own call sign
- C. With your call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any
- suitable word) and the Novice call sign
- D. A Novice station should not be operated on 7250 kHz, even
- with a General control operator
-
- G1A18 (D) [97.205a]
- Under what circumstances may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the
- 2-meter signal from a Technician class operator?
- A. Under no circumstances
- B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special
- Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
- C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications
- emergency
- D. Only if the 10-meter control operator holds at least a
- General class license
-
- G1A19 (A) [97.3a35]
- What kind of amateur station automatically retransmits the
- signals of other stations?
- A. Repeater station
- B. Space station
- C. Telecommand station
- D. Relay station
-
- G1A20 (B) [97.3a21]
- What name is given to a form of interference that seriously
- degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication
- service?
- A. Intentional interference
- B. Harmful interference
- C. Adjacent interference
- D. Disruptive interference
-
- G1A21 (C) [97.115, 97.117]
- What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur station
- to a foreign country for a third party?
- A. Messages for which the amateur operator is paid
- B. Messages facilitating the business affairs of any party
- C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal
- character
- D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third
- parties
-
- G1B Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good
- amateur practice; beacon operation; restricted operation;
- retransmitting radio signals
-
- G1B01 (C) [97.15a]
- Up to what height above the ground may you install an antenna
- structure without needing FCC approval?
- A. 50 feet
- B. 100 feet
- C. 200 feet
- D. 300 feet
-
- G1B02 (B) [97.101a]
- If the FCC Rules DO NOT specifically cover a situation, how must
- you operate your amateur station?
- A. In accordance with general licensee operator principles
- B. In accordance with good engineering and good amateur practice
- C. In accordance with practices adopted by the Institute of
- Electrical and Electronics Engineers
- D. In accordance with procedures set forth by the International
- Amateur Radio Union
-
- G1B03 (B) [97.203g]
- Which type of station may transmit one-way communications?
- A. Repeater station
- B. Beacon station
- C. HF station
- D. VHF station
-
- G1B04 (A) [97.113c]
- Which of the following does NOT need to be true if an amateur
- station gathers news information for broadcast purposes?
- A. The information is more quickly transmitted by amateur radio
- B. The information must involve the immediate safety of life of
- individuals or the immediate protection of property
- C. The information must be directly related to the event
- D. The information cannot be transmitted by other means
-
- G1B05 (D) [97.113e]
- Under what limited circumstances may music be transmitted by an
- amateur station?
- A. When it produces no dissonances or spurious emissions
- B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
- C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
- D. When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle
- retransmission
-
- G1B06 (C) [97.113d]
- When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit a
- message in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning of the
- communication?
- A. When transmitting above 450 MHz
- B. During contests
- C. Never
- D. During a declared communications emergency
-
- G1B07 (B) [97.113d]
- What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or
- procedural signals in the amateur service?
- A. There are no restrictions
- B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a
- message
- C. They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a
- message to FCC monitoring stations
- D. Only "10-codes" are permitted
-
- G1B08 (A) [97.113d]
- When are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way domestic amateur
- communications?
- A. Never
- B. During contests
- C. During nationally declared emergencies
- D. On frequencies above 2.3 GHz
-
- G1B09 (A) [97.113d]
- When are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way international
- amateur communications?
- A. Never
- B. During contests
- C. During internationally declared emergencies
- D. On frequencies above 2.3 GHz
-
- G1B10 (D) [97.113d]
- Which of the following amateur transmissions is NOT prohibited by
- the FCC Rules?
- A. The playing of music
- B. The use of obscene or indecent words
- C. False or deceptive messages or signals
- D. Retransmission of space shuttle communications
-
- G1B11 (C) [97.113d/e]
- What should you do to keep your station from retransmitting music
- or signals from a non-amateur station?
- A. Turn up the volume of your transceiver
- B. Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal
- strength
- C. Turn down the volume of background audio
- D. Adjust your transceiver noise blanker
-
- G1C Transmitter power standards; type acceptance of external
- RF-power amplifiers; standards for type acceptance of external
- RF-power amplifiers; HF data emission standards
-
- G1C01 (A) [97.313c1]
- What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
- on 3690 kHz?
- A. 200 watts PEP output
- B. 1000 watts PEP output
- C. 1500 watts PEP output
- D. 2000 watts PEP output
-
- G1C02 (C) [97.313b]
- What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
- on 7080 kHz?
- A. 200 watts PEP output
- B. 1000 watts PEP output
- C. 1500 watts PEP output
- D. 2000 watts PEP output
-
- G1C03 (A) [97.313c1]
- What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
- on 10.140 MHz?
- A. 200 watts PEP output
- B. 1000 watts PEP output
- C. 1500 watts PEP output
- D. 2000 watts PEP output
-
- G1C04 (A) [97.313c1]
- What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
- on 21.150 MHz?
- A. 200 watts PEP output
- B. 1000 watts PEP output
- C. 1500 watts PEP output
- D. 2000 watts PEP output
-
- G1C05 (C) [97.313b]
- What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use
- on 24.950 MHz?
- A. 200 watts PEP output
- B. 1000 watts PEP output
- C. 1500 watts PEP output
- D. 2000 watts PEP output
-
- G1C06 (D) [97.315a]
- External RF power amplifiers designed to operate below what
- frequency may require FCC type acceptance?
- A. 28 MHz
- B. 35 MHz
- C. 50 MHz
- D. 144 MHz
-
- G1C07 (B) [97.315a]
- Without a grant of FCC type acceptance, how many external RF
- amplifiers of a given design capable of operation below 144 MHz
- may you build or modify in one calendar year?
- A. None
- B. 1
- C. 5
- D. 10
-
- G1C08 (B) [97.317c6i]
- Which of the following standards must be met if FCC type
- acceptance of an external RF amplifier is required?
- A. The amplifier must not be able to amplify a 28-MHz signal to
- more than ten times the input power
- B. The amplifier must not be capable of reaching its designed
- output power when driven with less than 50 watts
- C. The amplifier must not be able to be operated for more than
- ten minutes without a time delay circuit
- D. The amplifier must not be able to be modified by an amateur
- operator
-
- G1C09 (D) [97.317b/c]
- Which of the following would NOT disqualify an external RF power
- amplifier from being granted FCC type acceptance?
- A. The capability of being modified by the operator for use
- outside the amateur bands
- B. The capability of achieving full output power when driven
- with less than 50 watts
- C. The capability of achieving full output power on amateur
- frequencies between 24 and 35 MHz
- D. The capability of being switched by the operator to all
- amateur frequencies below 24 MHz
-
- G1C10 (A) [97.307f3]
- What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emissions
- below 28 MHz?
- A. 300 bauds
- B. 1200 bauds
- C. 19.6 kilobauds
- D. 56 kilobauds
-
- G1C11 (D) [97.307f3]
- What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions
- below 28 MHz?
- A. 56 kilobauds
- B. 19.6 kilobauds
- C. 1200 bauds
- D. 300 bauds
-
- G1D Examination element preparation; examination
- administration; temporary station identification
-
- G1D01 (B) [97.507a2]
- What telegraphy examination elements may you prepare if you hold
- a General class license?
- A. None
- B. Element 1A only
- C. Element 1B only
- D. Elements 1A and 1B
-
- G1D02 (C) [97.507a2&3]
- What written examination elements may you prepare if you hold a
- General class license?
- A. None
- B. Element 2 only
- C. Elements 2 and 3A
- D. Elements 2, 3A and 3B
-
- G1D03 (C) [97.511b1]
- What license examinations may you administer if you hold a
- General class license?
- A. None
- B. Novice only
- C. Novice and Technician
- D. Novice, Technician and General
-
- G1D04 (B) [97.501e]
- What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a
- Novice license?
- A. Element 2 only
- B. Elements 1A and 2
- C. Elements 2 and 3A
- D. Elements 1A, 2 and 3A
-
- G1D05 (C) [97.501d]
- What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a
- Technician license?
- A. Element 2 only
- B. Elements 1A and 2
- C. Elements 2 and 3A
- D. Elements 1A, 2 and 3A
-
- G1D06 (D) [97.301e/501d]
- What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a
- Technician license with HF privileges?
- A. Element 2 only
- B. Elements 1A and 2
- C. Elements 2 and 3A
- D. Elements 1A, 2 and 3A
-
- G1D07 (A) [97.511a/b]
- What are the requirements for administering Novice examinations?
- A. Three VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be
- present
- B. Two VEC-accredited General class or higher VEs must be
- present
- C. Two General class or higher VEs must be present, but only one
- need be VEC accredited
- D. Any two General class or higher VEs must be present
-
- G1D08 (D) [97.507a]
- When may you participate as an administering Volunteer Examiner
- (VE) for a Novice license examination?
- A. Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give an
- examination
- B. Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of
- Examination (CSCE) for General class
- C. Once you have prepared telegraphy and written examinations
- for the Novice license, or obtained them from a qualified
- supplier
- D. Once you have received both your FCC-issued General class or
- higher license in the mail and VEC accreditation
-
- G1D09 (B) [97.119e2]
- If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
- Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do
- you identify your station when transmitting on 14.035 MHz?
- A. You must give your call sign and the location of the VE
- examination where you obtained the CSCE
- B. You must give your call sign, followed by the slant mark "/",
- followed by the identifier "AG"
- C. You may not operate on 14.035 MHz until your new license
- arrives
- D. No special form of identification is needed
-
- G1D10 (C) [97.119e2]
- If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
- Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, how do
- you identify your station when transmitting phone emissions on
- 14.325 MHz?
- A. No special form of identification is needed
- B. You may not operate on 14.325 MHz until your new license
- arrives
- C. You must give your call sign, followed by any suitable word
- that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "AG"
- D. You must give your call sign and the location of the VE
- examination where you obtained the CSCE
-
- G1D11 (A) [97.119e2]
- If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
- Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General privileges, when
- must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign?
- A. Whenever you operate using your new frequency privileges
- B. Whenever you operate
- C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
- D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General
- class license application has been filed with the FCC
-
- SUBELEMENT G2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [3 exam questions - 3
- groups]
-
- G2A Phone, RTTY, repeater, VOX and full break-in CW
-
- G2A01 (A)
- Which sideband is commonly used for 20-meter phone operation?
- A. Upper
- B. Lower
- C. Amplitude compandored
- D. Double
-
- G2A02 (B)
- Which sideband is commonly used on 3925-kHz for phone operation?
- A. Upper
- B. Lower
- C. Amplitude compandored
- D. Double
-
- G2A03 (A)
- In what segment of the 80-meter band do most RTTY transmissions
- take place?
- A. 3610 - 3630 kHz
- B. 3500 - 3525 kHz
- C. 3700 - 3750 kHz
- D. 3775 - 3825 kHz
-
- G2A04 (B)
- In what segment of the 20-meter band do most RTTY transmissions
- take place?
- A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
- B. 14.075 - 14.100 MHz
- C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz
- D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz
-
- G2A05 (C)
- What is the Baudot code?
- A. A 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits
- B. A 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three
- space bits
- C. A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
- D. A 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
-
- G2A06 (A)
- What is ASCII?
- A. A 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits
- B. A 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three
- space bits
- C. A 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits
- D. A 5-bit code in which each character has three mark and two
- space bits
-
- G2A07 (B)
- What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the
- amateur HF bands?
- A. 85 Hz
- B. 170 Hz
- C. 425 Hz
- D. 850 Hz
-
- G2A08 (B)
- What are the two major AMTOR operating modes?
- A. Mode AM and Mode TR
- B. Mode A (ARQ) and Mode B (FEC)
- C. Mode C (CRQ) and Mode D (DEC)
- D. Mode SELCAL and Mode LISTEN
-
- G2A09 (A)
- What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a
- 10-meter station in repeater operation?
- A. 100 kHz
- B. 600 kHz
- C. 1.6 MHz
- D. 170 Hz
-
- G2A10 (B)
- What is the circuit called which causes a transmitter to
- automatically transmit when an operator speaks into its
- microphone?
- A. VXO
- B. VOX
- C. VCO
- D. VFO
-
- G2A11 (D)
- Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy?
- A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK
- B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand
- keys
- C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before
- and after every transmission
- D. Incoming signals are received between transmitted key pulses
-
- G2B Operating courtesy, antenna orientation and HF operations,
- including logging practices; ITU Regions
-
- G2B01 (D)
- If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should
- you do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just
- before the net begins?
- A. Reduce your output power and start the net as usual
- B. Increase your power output so that net participants will be
- able to hear you over the existing activity
- C. Cancel the net for that day
- D. Conduct the net on a frequency 3 to 5 kHz away from the
- regular net frequency
-
- G2B02 (A)
- If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another
- station are using, what should you do?
- A. As a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency
- B. Increase your power output to ensure that all net
- participants can hear you
- C. Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no
- other stations may use it
- D. Turn off your radio
-
- G2B03 (D)
- If propagation changes during your contact and you notice
- increasing interference from other activity on the same
- frequency, what should you do?
- A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you
- were there first
- B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary
- Coordinator
- C. Turn on your amplifier to overcome the interference
- D. Move your contact to another frequency
-
- G2B04 (B)
- When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum
- frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow
- to minimize interference?
- A. 5 to 50 Hz
- B. 150 to 500 Hz
- C. 1 to 3 kHz
- D. 3 to 6 kHz
-
- G2B05 (B)
- When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency,
- what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress
- should you allow (between suppressed carriers) to minimize
- interference?
- A. 150 to 500 Hz
- B. Approximately 3 kHz
- C. Approximately 6 kHz
- D. Approximately 10 kHz
-
- G2B06 (B)
- When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum
- frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow
- (center to center) to minimize interference?
- A. 60 Hz
- B. 250 to 500 Hz
- C. Approximately 3 kHz
- D. Approximately 6 kHz
-
- G2B07 (B)
- What is an azimuthal map?
- A. A map projection centered on the North Pole
- B. A map projection centered on a particular location, used to
- determine the shortest path between points on the surface of the
- earth
- C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite
- crosses the equator
- D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an
- amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with
- each orbit
-
- G2B08 (A)
- What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a
- directional HF antenna toward a distant station?
- A. Azimuthal
- B. Mercator
- C. Polar projection
- D. Topographical
-
- G2B09 (C)
- A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to
- another station is generally oriented how many degrees from its
- short-path heading?
- A. 45 degrees
- B. 90 degrees
- C. 180 degrees
- D. 270 degrees
-
- G2B10 (A)
- What is a band plan?
- A. A guideline for using different operating modes within an
- amateur band
- B. A guideline for deviating from FCC amateur frequency band
- allocations
- C. A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band
- published by the FCC
- D. A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during
- a contest
-
- G2B11 (B)
- In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the
- continental United States?
- A. Region 1
- B. Region 2
- C. Region 3
- D. Region 4
-
- G2C Emergencies, including drills, communications and amateur
- auxiliary to FOB
-
- G2C01 (C)
- What means may an amateur station in distress use to attract
- attention, make known its condition and location, and obtain
- assistance?
- A. Only Morse code signals sent on internationally recognized
- emergency channels
- B. Any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally
- recognized emergency channels
- C. Any means of radiocommunication
- D. Only those means of radiocommunication for which the station
- is licensed
-
- G2C02 (A)
- During a disaster in the US, when may an amateur station make
- transmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and
- assist relief operations?
- A. When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or
- disrupted
- B. Only when the local RACES net is activated
- C. Never; only official emergency stations may transmit in a
- disaster
- D. When normal communication systems are working but are not
- convenient
-
- G2C03 (A)
- If a disaster disrupts normal communications in your area, what
- may the FCC do?
- A. Declare a temporary state of communication emergency
- B. Temporarily seize your equipment for use in disaster
- communications
- C. Order all stations across the country to stop transmitting at
- once
- D. Nothing until the President declares the area a disaster area
-
- G2C04 (D)
- If a disaster disrupts normal communications in an area, what
- would the FCC include in any notice of a temporary state of
- communication emergency?
- A. Any additional test questions needed for the licensing of
- amateur emergency communications workers
- B. A list of organizations authorized to temporarily seize your
- equipment for disaster communications
- C. Any special conditions requiring the use of non-commercial
- power systems
- D. Any special conditions and special rules to be observed by
- stations during the emergency
-
- G2C05 (D)
- During an emergency, what power output limitations must be
- observed by a station in distress?
- A. 200 watts PEP
- B. 1500 watts PEP
- C. 1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts
- PEP during the night
- D. There are no limitations during an emergency
-
- G2C06 (C)
- During a disaster in the US, what frequencies may be used to
- obtain assistance?
- A. Only frequencies in the 80-meter band
- B. Only frequencies in the 40-meter band
- C. Any frequency
- D. Any United Nations approved frequency
-
- G2C07 (B)
- If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a
- station in distress break in, what should you do?
- A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency
- first
- B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its
- location and what assistance may be needed
- C. Change to a different frequency so the station in distress
- may have a clear channel to call for assistance
- D. Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in
- distress have emergency rights to the frequency
-
- G2C08 (A)
- Why do stations in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
- (RACES) participate in training tests and drills?
- A. To practice orderly and efficient operations for the civil
- defense organization they serve
- B. To ensure that members attend monthly on-the-air meetings
- C. To ensure that RACES members are able to conduct tests and
- drills
- D. To acquaint members of RACES with other members they may meet
- in an emergency
-
- G2C09 (C)
- What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in
- a foreign country?
- A. Messages of any type
- B. Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in
- nature
- C. Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of
- relative unimportance
- D. Messages of any type, but only if the foreign country has a
- third-party communications agreement with the US
-
- G2C10 (A)
- What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations
- Bureau?
- A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the
- airwaves for rules violations
- B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
- C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for
- amateur VHF repeaters
- D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help
- civil defense organizations in times of emergency
-
- G2C11 (B)
- What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's
- Field Operations Bureau?
- A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing
- examinations
- B. To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the
- rules
- C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum
- usage
- D. To provide emergency and public safety communications
-
- SUBELEMENT G3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 exam questions - 3
- groups]
-
- G3A Ionospheric disturbances; sunspots and solar radiation
-
- G3A01 (A)
- What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications
- during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?
- A. Try a higher frequency
- B. Try the other sideband
- C. Try a different antenna polarization
- D. Try a different frequency shift
-
- G3A02 (B)
- What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the
- daylight ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?
- A. It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude
- paths
- B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on
- higher frequencies
- C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct
- communications
- D. None, only areas on the night side of the earth are affected
-
- G3A03 (C)
- How long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray
- radiation from solar flares to affect radio-wave propagation on
- the earth?
- A. The effect is instantaneous
- B. 1.5 seconds
- C. 8 minutes
- D. 20 to 40 hours
-
- G3A04 (B)
- What is solar flux?
- A. The density of the sun's magnetic field
- B. The radio energy emitted by the sun
- C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the
- earth
- D. A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side
- toward the sun
-
- G3A05 (D)
- What is the solar-flux index?
- A. A measure of solar activity that is taken annually
- B. A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with
- results from the last six months
- C. Another name for the American sunspot number
- D. A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific
- frequency
-
- G3A06 (D)
- What is a geomagnetic disturbance?
- A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index
- B. A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole
- C. Ripples in the ionosphere
- D. A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short
- period of time
-
- G3A07 (A)
- At which latitudes are propagation paths more sensitive to
- geomagnetic disturbances?
- A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude
- B. Those between 5 and 45 degrees latitude
- C. Those near the equator
- D. All paths are affected equally
-
- G3A08 (B)
- What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on radio-wave
- propagation?
- A. Improved high-latitude HF propagation
- B. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
- C. Improved ground-wave propagation
- D. Improved chances of UHF ducting
-
- G3A09 (A)
- What influences all radio communication beyond ground-wave or
- line-of-sight ranges?
- A. Solar activity
- B. Lunar tidal effects
- C. The F1 region of the ionosphere
- D. The F2 region of the ionosphere
-
- G3A10 (B)
- Which two types of radiation from the sun influence propagation?
- A. Subaudible- and audio-frequency emissions
- B. Electromagnetic and particle emissions
- C. Polar-region and equatorial emissions
- D. Infrared and gamma-ray emissions
-
- G3A11 (C)
- When sunspot numbers are high, how is the ionosphere affected?
- A. High-frequency radio signals are absorbed
- B. Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are normally usable for
- long-distance communication
- C. Frequencies up to 40 MHz or higher are normally usable for
- long-distance communication
- D. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
-
- G3B Maximum usable frequency, propagation "hops"
-
- G3B01 (B)
- If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota to
- France is 22 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a
- successful contact?
- A. 10 meters
- B. 15 meters
- C. 20 meters
- D. 40 Meters
-
- G3B02 (C)
- If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to Germany
- is 17 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a
- successful contact?
- A. 80 meters
- B. 40 meters
- C. 20 meters
- D. 2 meters
-
- G3B03 (C)
- If the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high and HF radio-wave
- propagation is generally good for several days, a similar
- condition can usually be expected how many days later?
- A. 7
- B. 14
- C. 28
- D. 90
-
- G3B04 (A)
- What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency
- (MUF) is high enough to support 28-MHz propagation between your
- station and western Europe?
- A. Listen for signals on the 10-meter beacon frequency
- B. Listen for signals on the 20-meter beacon frequency
- C. Listen for signals on the 39-meter broadcast frequency
- D. Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz
-
- G3B05 (A)
- What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the
- maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the
- ionosphere?
- A. They are bent back to the earth
- B. They pass through the ionosphere
- C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
- D. They are changed to a frequency above the MUF
-
- G3B06 (C)
- Where would you tune to hear beacons that would help you
- determine propagation conditions on the 20-meter band?
- A. 28.2 MHz
- B. 21.1 MHz
- C. 14.1 MHz
- D. 14.2 MHz
-
- G3B07 (D)
- During periods of low solar activity, which frequencies are the
- least reliable for long-distance communication?
- A. Frequencies below 3.5 MHz
- B. Frequencies near 3.5 MHz
- C. Frequencies on or above 10 MHz
- D. Frequencies above 20 MHz
-
- G3B08 (D)
- At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually
- support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
- A. At the summer solstice
- B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
- C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
- D. At any point in the solar cycle
-
- G3B09 (A)
- What is one characteristic of gray-line propagation?
- A. It is very efficient
- B. It improves local communications
- C. It is very poor
- D. It increases D-region absorption
-
- G3B10 (C)
- What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is
- normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
- A. 180 miles
- B. 1200 miles
- C. 2500 miles
- D. None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation
-
- G3B11 (B)
- What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is
- normally covered in one hop using the E region?
- A. 180 miles
- B. 1200 miles
- C. 2500 miles
- D. None; the E region does not support radio-wave propagation
-
- G3C Height of ionospheric regions, critical angle and frequency,
- HF scatter
-
- G3C01 (B)
- What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E region?
- A. 45 miles
- B. 70 miles
- C. 200 miles
- D. 1200 miles
-
- G3C02 (A)
- When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at
- your location?
- A. At noon during the summer
- B. At midnight during the summer
- C. At dusk in the spring and fall
- D. At noon during the winter
-
- G3C03 (C)
- Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest-distance
- radio-wave propagation?
- A. Because it exists only at night
- B. Because it is the lowest ionospheric region
- C. Because it is the highest ionospheric region
- D. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other
- ionospheric regions
-
- G3C04 (D)
- What is the "critical angle" as used in radio-wave propagation?
- A. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the
- earth under specific ionospheric conditions
- B. The compass direction of a distant station
- C. The compass direction opposite that of a distant station
- D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to
- the earth under specific ionospheric conditions
-
- G3C05 (C)
- What is the main reason the 160-, 80- and 40-meter amateur bands
- tend to be useful only for short-distance communications during
- daylight hours?
- A. Because of a lack of activity
- B. Because of auroral propagation
- C. Because of D-region absorption
- D. Because of magnetic flux
-
- G3C06 (B)
- What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
- A. High intelligibility
- B. A wavering sound
- C. Reversed modulation
- D. Reversed sidebands
-
- G3C07 (D)
- What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
- A. Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field
- B. Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the
- signal
- C. The state of the E-region at the point of refraction
- D. Energy scattered into the skip zone through several
- radio-wave paths
-
- G3C08 (A)
- Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?
- A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the
- skip zone
- B. Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy
- C. Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal
- energy
- D. The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal
- energy
-
- G3C09 (B)
- What type of radio-wave propagation allows a signal to be
- detected at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but
- too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
- A. Ground wave
- B. Scatter
- C. Sporadic-E skip
- D. Short-path skip
-
- G3C10 (D)
- When does scatter propagation on the HF bands most often occur?
- A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region
- absorption is high
- B. At night
- C. When the F1 and F2 regions are combined
- D. When communicating on frequencies above the maximum usable
- frequency (MUF)
-
- G3C11 (A)
- What type of signal fading occurs when two or more parts of a
- radio wave follow different paths?
- A. Multipath interference
- B. Multimode interference
- C. Selective Interference
- D. Ionospheric interference
-
- SUBELEMENT G4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 exam questions - 5
- groups]
-
- G4A Two-tone test; electronic TR switch, amplifier
- neutralization
-
- G4A01 (C)
- What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity
- of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output
- on an oscilloscope?
- A. Normal speech
- B. An audio-frequency sine wave
- C. Two audio-frequency sine waves
- D. An audio-frequency square wave
-
- G4A02 (C)
- When testing the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband
- transmitter, what kind of audio tones are fed into the microphone
- input and on what kind of instrument is the output observed?
- A. Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is
- observed on an oscilloscope
- B. Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is
- observed on a distortion analyzer
- C. Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output
- is observed on an oscilloscope
- D. Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output
- is observed on a distortion analyzer
-
- G4A03 (D)
- What audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the
- linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter?
- A. 20 Hz and 20 kHz tones must be used
- B. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used
- C. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the
- transmitter audio passband, and must be harmonically related
- D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the
- transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically
- related
-
- G4A04 (D)
- What measurement can be made of a single-sideband phone
- transmitter's amplifier by performing a two-tone test using an
- oscilloscope?
- A. Its percent of frequency modulation
- B. Its percent of carrier phase shift
- C. Its frequency deviation
- D. Its linearity
-
- G4A05 (A)
- At what point in an HF transceiver block diagram would an
- electronic TR switch normally appear?
- A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter
- B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna
- C. At the antenna feed point
- D. At the power-supply feed point
-
- G4A06 (C)
- Why is an electronic TR switch preferable to a mechanical one?
- A. It allows greater receiver sensitivity
- B. Its circuitry is simpler
- C. It has a higher operating speed
- D. It allows cleaner output signals
-
- G4A07 (A)
- As a power amplifier is tuned, what reading on its grid-current
- meter indicates the best neutralization?
- A. A minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is
- changed
- B. A maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is
- changed
- C. Minimum grid current
- D. Maximum grid current
-
- G4A08 (D)
- Why is neutralization necessary for some vacuum-tube amplifiers?
- A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q
- B. To reduce grid-to-cathode leakage
- C. To cancel AC hum from the filament transformer
- D. To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode
- capacitance
-
- G4A09 (C)
- In a properly neutralized RF amplifier, what type of feedback is
- used?
- A. 5%
- B. 10%
- C. Negative
- D. Positive
-
- G4A10 (B)
- What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier?
- A. It controls differential gain
- B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback
- C. It eliminates AC hum from the power supply
- D. It reduces incidental grid modulation
-
- G4A11 (B)
- What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of
- a transmitter?
- A. To limit the modulation index
- B. To eliminate self oscillations
- C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
- D. To keep the carrier on frequency
-
- G4B Test equipment: oscilloscope; signal tracer; antenna noise
- bridge; monitoring oscilloscope; field-strength meters
-
- G4B01 (D)
- What item of test equipment contains horizontal- and
- vertical-channel amplifiers?
- A. An ohmmeter
- B. A signal generator
- C. An ammeter
- D. An oscilloscope
-
- G4B02 (D)
- How would a signal tracer normally be used?
- A. To identify the source of radio transmissions
- B. To make exact drawings of signal waveforms
- C. To show standing wave patterns on open-wire feed lines
- D. To identify an inoperative stage in a receiver
-
- G4B03 (B)
- Why would you use an antenna noise bridge?
- A. To measure the noise figure of an antenna or other electrical
- circuit
- B. To measure the impedance of an antenna or other electrical
- circuit
- C. To cancel electrical noise picked up by an antenna
- D. To tune out noise in a receiver
-
- G4B04 (C)
- How is an antenna noise bridge normally used?
- A. It is connected at an antenna's feed point and reads the
- antenna's noise figure
- B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and is
- tuned for minimum SWR
- C. It is connected between a receiver and an unknown impedance
- and is tuned for minimum noise
- D. It is connected between an antenna and ground and is tuned
- for minimum SWR
-
- G4B05 (A)
- What is the best instrument to use to check the signal quality of
- a CW or single-sideband phone transmitter?
- A. A monitoring oscilloscope
- B. A field-strength meter
- C. A sidetone monitor
- D. A signal tracer and an audio amplifier
-
- G4B06 (D)
- What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a
- monitoring oscilloscope when checking the quality of a
- transmitted signal?
- A. The IF output of a monitoring receiver
- B. The audio input of the transmitter
- C. The RF signals of a nearby receiving antenna
- D. The RF output of the transmitter
-
- G4B07 (A)
- What instrument can be used to determine the horizontal radiation
- pattern of an antenna?
- A. A field-strength meter
- B. A grid-dip meter
- C. An oscilloscope
- D. A signal tracer and an audio amplifier
-
- G4B08 (C)
- How is a field-strength meter normally used?
- A. To determine the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line
- B. To check the output modulation of a transmitter
- C. To monitor relative RF output
- D. To increase average transmitter output
-
- G4B09 (A)
- What simple instrument may be used to monitor relative RF output
- during antenna and transmitter adjustments?
- A. A field-strength meter
- B. An antenna noise bridge
- C. A multimeter
- D. A metronome
-
- G4B10 (B)
- If the power output of a transmitter is increased by four times,
- how might a nearby receiver's S-meter reading change?
- A. Decrease by approximately one S unit
- B. Increase by approximately one S unit
- C. Increase by approximately four S units
- D. Decrease by approximately four S units
-
- G4B11 (C)
- By how many times must the power output of a transmitter be
- increased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from
- S8 to S9?
- A. Approximately 2 times
- B. Approximately 3 times
- C. Approximately 4 times
- D. Approximately 5 times
-
- G4C Audio rectification in consumer electronics, RF ground
-
- G4C01 (B)
- What devices would you install to reduce or eliminate
- audio-frequency interference to home-entertainment systems?
- A. Bypass inductors
- B. Bypass capacitors
- C. Metal-oxide varistors
- D. Bypass resistors
-
- G4C02 (B)
- What should be done if a properly operating amateur station is
- the cause of interference to a nearby telephone?
- A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment
- B. Ask the telephone company to install RFI filters
- C. Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use
- D. Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier
-
- G4C03 (C)
- What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio
- rectification of a nearby single-sideband phone transmission
- occurs?
- A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter's carrier is on the air
- B. On-and-off humming or clicking
- C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals
- D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals
-
- G4C04 (A)
- What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio
- rectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs?
- A. On-and-off humming or clicking
- B. Audible, possibly distorted speech
- C. Muffled, severely distorted speech
- D. A steady whistling
-
- G4C05 (C)
- How can you minimize the possibility of audio rectification of
- your transmitter's signals?
- A. By using a solid-state transmitter
- B. By using CW emission only
- C. By ensuring that all station equipment is properly grounded
- D. By installing bypass capacitors on all power supply
- rectifiers
-
- G4C06 (D)
- If your third-floor amateur station has a ground wire running 33
- feet down to a ground rod, why might you get an RF burn if you
- touch the front panel of your HF transceiver?
- A. Because the ground rod is not making good contact with moist
- earth
- B. Because the transceiver's heat-sensing circuit is not working
- to start the cooling fan
- C. Because of a bad antenna connection, allowing the RF energy
- to take an easier path out of the transceiver through you
- D. Because the ground wire is a resonant length on several HF
- bands and acts more like an antenna than an RF ground connection
-
- G4C07 (A)
- What is NOT an important reason to have a good station ground?
- A. To reduce the cost of operating a station
- B. To reduce electrical noise
- C. To reduce interference
- D. To reduce the possibility of electric shock
-
- G4C08 (A)
- What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in your amateur
- station?
- A. Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible
- B. Use a beryllium ground wire for best conductivity
- C. Drive the ground rod at least 14 feet into the ground
- D. Make a couple of loops in the ground wire where it connects
- to your station
-
- G4C09 (B)
- Which statement about station grounding is NOT true?
- A. Braid from RG-213 coaxial cable makes a good conductor to tie
- station equipment together into a station ground
- B. Only transceivers and power amplifiers need to be tied into a
- station ground
- C. According to the National Electrical Code, there should be
- only one grounding system in a building
- D. The minimum length for a good ground rod is 8 feet
-
- G4C10 (C)
- Which statement about station grounding is true?
- A. The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied
- together with high-impedance conductors
- B. If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a
- good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground
- C. RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground
- floor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire
- D. A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment
-
- G4C11 (D)
- Which of the following is NOT covered in the National Electrical
- Code?
- A. Minimum conductor sizes for different lengths of amateur
- antennas
- B. The size and composition of grounding conductors
- C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack
- D. The RF exposure limits of the human body
-
- G4D Speech processors; PEP calculations; wire sizes and fuses
-
- G4D01 (D)
- What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor
- with a single-sideband phone transmitter?
- A. It reduces average transmitter power requirements
- B. It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone
- C. It improves voice frequency fidelity
- D. It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver
-
- G4D02 (B)
- If a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what
- will a speech processor do to the transmitter's power?
- A. It will increase the output PEP
- B. It will add nothing to the output PEP
- C. It will decrease the peak power output
- D. It will decrease the average power output
-
- G4D03 (B)
- How is the output PEP of a transmitter calculated if an
- oscilloscope is used to measure the transmitter's peak load
- voltage across a resistive load?
- A. PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)] / (RL)
- B. PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)] / RL
- C. PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL)
- D. PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)] / RL
-
- G4D04 (A)
- What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope
- measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor
- connected to the transmitter output?
- A. 100 watts
- B. 200 watts
- C. 400 watts
- D. 1000 watts
-
- G4D05 (B)
- What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope
- measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor
- connected to the transmitter output?
- A. 500 watts
- B. 625 watts
- C. 1250 watts
- D. 2500 watts
-
- G4D06 (B)
- What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier transmitter if
- an average-reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output
- indicates 1060 watts?
- A. 530 watts
- B. 1060 watts
- C. 1500 watts
- D. 2120 watts
-
- G4D07 (A)
- Which wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to
- fuses in a 240-VAC primary (single phase) power supply?
- A. Only the "hot" (black and red) wires
- B. Only the "neutral" (white) wire
- C. Only the ground (bare) wire
- D. All wires
-
- G4D08 (A)
- What size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 120-VAC household
- lighting circuit?
- A. AWG number 14
- B. AWG number 16
- C. AWG number 18
- D. AWG number 22
-
- G4D09 (D)
- What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 120-VAC household
- appliance circuit?
- A. AWG number 20
- B. AWG number 16
- C. AWG number 14
- D. AWG number 12
-
- G4D10 (D)
- What maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a
- household appliance circuit using AWG number 12 wiring?
- A. 100 amperes
- B. 60 amperes
- C. 30 amperes
- D. 20 amperes
-
- G4D11 (A)
- What maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a
- household appliance circuit using AWG number 14 wiring?
- A. 15 amperes
- B. 20 amperes
- C. 30 amperes
- D. 60 amperes
-
- G4E RF safety
-
- G4E01 (A)
- Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of
- the RF field, and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect
- body tissue?
- A. It heats the tissue
- B. It causes radiation poisoning
- C. It causes blood flow to stop
- D. It produces genetic changes in the tissue
-
- G4E02 (C)
- If you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what
- precautions should you take when you install them?
- A. Locate the antennas close to your operating position to
- minimize feed-line length
- B. Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets
- the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation
- C. Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living
- spaces that will be occupied while you are operating
- D. Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to
- take advantage of parasitic effects
-
- G4E03 (A)
- What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments to
- the feed system of a parabolic dish antenna?
- A. Be sure no one can activate the transmitter
- B. Disconnect the antenna-positioning mechanism
- C. Point the dish away from the sun so it doesn't concentrate
- solar energy on you
- D. Be sure you and the antenna structure are properly grounded
-
- G4E04 (B)
- What is one important thing to consider when using an indoor
- antenna?
- A. Use stranded wire to reduce stray RF
- B. Ensure that the antenna is as far away from people as
- possible
- C. Use only a Yagi antenna to direct the signals away from
- people
- D. Use as much power as possible to ensure that your signal gets
- out
-
- G4E05 (A)
- Why should a protective fence be placed around the base of a
- ground-mounted parabolic dish transmitting antenna?
- A. To reduce the possibility of persons being harmed by RF
- energy during transmissions
- B. To reduce the possibility that animals will damage the
- antenna
- C. To increase the property value through increased security
- awareness
- D. To protect the antenna from lightning damage and provide a
- good ground system for the installation
-
- G4E06 (B)
- What RF-safety precautions should you take before beginning
- repairs on an antenna?
- A. Be sure you and the antenna structure are grounded
- B. Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed
- line
- C. Inform your neighbors so they are aware of your intentions
- D. Turn off the main power switch in your house
-
- G4E07 (D)
- What precaution should you take when installing a ground-mounted
- antenna?
- A. It should not be installed higher than you can reach
- B. It should not be installed in a wet area
- C. It should be painted so people or animals do not accidentally
- run into it
- D. It should be installed so no one can come in contact with it
-
- G4E08 (B)
- What precautions should you take before beginning repairs on a
- microwave feed horn or waveguide?
- A. Be sure to wear tight-fitting clothes and gloves to protect
- your body and hands from sharp edges
- B. Be sure the transmitter is turned off and the power source is
- disconnected
- C. Be sure the weather is dry and sunny
- D. Be sure propagation conditions are unfavorable for
- tropospheric ducting
-
- G4E09 (D)
- Why should directional high-gain antennas be mounted higher than
- nearby structures?
- A. So they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm
- B. So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy
- C. So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves
- D. So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby
- structures
-
- G4E10 (C)
- For best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a dipole
- antenna be located?
- A. Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away
- from the ground
- B. As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be
- concentrated near the transmitter
- C. As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact
- with the antenna
- D. Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made
- without climbing a ladder
-
- G4E11 (B)
- Which property of RF energy is NOT important in estimating the
- energy's effect on body tissue?
- A. The polarization
- B. The critical angle
- C. The power density
- D. The frequency
-
- SUBELEMENT G5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [2 exam questions - 2
- groups]
-
- G5A Impedance, including matching; resistance, including ohm;
- reactance, inductance, capacitance and metric divisions of these
- values
-
- G5A01 (C)
- What is impedance?
- A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
- B. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing only
- capacitance
- C. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit
- D. The force of repulsion between one electric field and another
- with the same charge
-
- G5A02 (B)
- What is reactance?
- A. Opposition to DC caused by resistors
- B. Opposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors
- C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
- D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is
- de-energized
-
- G5A03 (D)
- In an inductor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?
- A. Resistance
- B. Reluctance
- C. Admittance
- D. Reactance
-
- G5A04 (C)
- In a capacitor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC?
- A. Resistance
- B. Reluctance
- C. Reactance
- D. Admittance
-
- G5A05 (D)
- How does a coil react to AC?
- A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
- decreases
- B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
- increases
- C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
- decreases
- D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
- increases
-
- G5A06 (A)
- How does a capacitor react to AC?
- A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
- decreases
- B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance
- increases
- C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
- increases
- D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance
- decreases
-
- G5A07 (A)
- When will a power source deliver maximum output to the load?
- A. When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of
- the source
- B. When the load resistance is infinite
- C. When the power-supply fuse rating equals the primary winding
- current
- D. When air wound transformers are used instead of iron-core
- transformers
-
- G5A08 (D)
- What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to
- the internal impedance of the power source?
- A. The source delivers minimum power to the load
- B. The electrical load is shorted
- C. No current can flow through the circuit
- D. The source delivers maximum power to the load
-
- G5A09 (A)
- Why is impedance matching important?
- A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load
- B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source
- C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the
- circuit
- D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit
- are equal
-
- G5A10 (B)
- What unit is used to measure reactance?
- A. Mho
- B. Ohm
- C. Ampere
- D. Siemens
-
- G5A11 (B)
- What unit is used to measure impedance?
- A. Volt
- B. Ohm
- C. Ampere
- D. Watt
-
- G5B Decibel, Ohm's Law, current and voltage dividers, electrical
- power calculations and series and parallel components,
- transformers (either voltage or impedance), sine wave
- root-mean-square (RMS) value
-
- G5B01 (B)
- A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?
- A. 1 dB higher
- B. 3 dB higher
- C. 6 dB higher
- D. 12 dB higher
-
- G5B02 (B)
- How can you decrease your transmitter's power by 3 dB?
- A. Divide the original power by 1.5
- B. Divide the original power by 2
- C. Divide the original power by 3
- D. Divide the original power by 4
-
- G5B03 (D)
- How can you increase your transmitter's power by 6 dB?
- A. Multiply the original power by 1.5
- B. Multiply the original power by 2
- C. Multiply the original power by 3
- D. Multiply the original power by 4
-
- G5B04 (C)
- If a signal-strength report is "10 dB over S9", what should the
- report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to
- 150 watts?
- A. S5
- B. S7
- C. S9
- D. S9 plus 5 dB
-
- G5B05 (C)
- If a signal-strength report is "20 dB over S9", what should the
- report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to
- 15 watts?
- A. S5
- B. S7
- C. S9
- D. S9 plus 10 dB
-
- G5B06 (D)
- If a 1.0-ampere current source is connected to two
- parallel-connected 10-ohm resistors, how much current passes
- through each resistor?
- A. 10 amperes
- B. 2 amperes
- C. 1 ampere
- D. 0.5 ampere
-
- G5B07 (B)
- In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch
- resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the
- branch resistors?
- A. It equals the average of the branch current through each
- resistor
- B. It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor
- C. It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the
- circuit
- D. It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by
- the total number of resistors
-
- G5B08 (B)
- How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is
- supplied to an 800-ohm load?
- A. 0.5 watts
- B. 200 watts
- C. 400 watts
- D. 320,000 watts
-
- G5B09 (D)
- How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light
- bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
- A. 60 watts
- B. 24 watts
- C. 6 watts
- D. 2.4 watts
-
- G5B10 (A)
- How many watts are being dissipated when 7.0 milliamperes flow
- through 1.25 kilohms?
- A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
- B. Approximately 39 milliwatts
- C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
- D. Approximately 9 milliwatts
-
- G5B11 (C)
- What is the voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a
- transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?
- A. 2370 volts
- B. 540 volts
- C. 26.7 volts
- D. 5.9 volts
-
- G5B12 (A)
- What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio
- amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a
- 4-ohm impedance?
- A. 12.2 to 1
- B. 24.4 to 1
- C. 150 to 1
- D. 300 to 1
-
- G5B13 (D)
- What is the impedance of a speaker that requires a transformer
- with a turns ratio of 24 to 1 to match an audio amplifier having
- an output impedance of 2000 ohms?
- A. 576 ohms
- B. 83.3 ohms
- C. 7.0 ohms
- D. 3.5 ohms
-
- G5B14 (B)
- A DC voltage equal to what value of an applied sine-wave AC
- voltage would produce the same amount of heat over time in a
- resistive element?
- A. The peak-to-peak value
- B. The RMS value
- C. The average value
- D. The peak value
-
- G5B15 (D)
- What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS
- voltage of 120 volts?
- A. 84.8 volts
- B. 169.7 volts
- C. 204.8 volts
- D. 339.4 volts
-
- G5B16 (B)
- A sine wave of 17 volts peak is equivalent to how many volts RMS?
- A. 8.5 volts
- B. 12 volts
- C. 24 volts
- D. 34 volts
-
- SUBELEMENT G6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [1 exam question - 1 group]
-
- G6A Resistors, capacitors, inductors, rectifiers and
- transistors, etc.
-
- G6A01 (C)
- If a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will happen
- to the resistance?
- A. It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade
- B. It will stay the same
- C. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature
- coefficient rating
- D. It will become time dependent
-
- G6A02 (D)
- What type of capacitor is often used in power-supply circuits to
- filter the rectified AC?
- A. Disc ceramic
- B. Vacuum variable
- C. Mica
- D. Electrolytic
-
- G6A03 (D)
- What type of capacitor is used in power-supply circuits to filter
- transient voltage spikes across the transformer's secondary
- winding?
- A. High-value
- B. Trimmer
- C. Vacuum variable
- D. Suppressor
-
- G6A04 (B)
- Where is the source of energy connected in a transformer?
- A. To the secondary winding
- B. To the primary winding
- C. To the core
- D. To the plates
-
- G6A05 (A)
- If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer,
- what is current in the primary winding called?
- A. Magnetizing current
- B. Direct current
- C. Excitation current
- D. Stabilizing current
-
- G6A06 (C)
- What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power-supply
- rectifier?
- A. The maximum transient voltage the rectifier will handle in
- the conducting direction
- B. 1.4 times the AC frequency
- C. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the
- non-conducting direction
- D. 2.8 times the AC frequency
-
- G6A07 (A)
- What are the two major ratings that must not be exceeded for
- silicon-diode rectifiers used in power-supply circuits?
- A. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current
- B. Average power; average voltage
- C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage
- D. Peak load impedance; peak voltage
-
- G6A08 (A)
- Why should a resistor and capacitor be wired in parallel with
- power-supply rectifier diodes?
- A. To equalize voltage drops and guard against transient voltage
- spikes
- B. To ensure that the current through each diode is about the
- same
- C. To smooth the output waveform
- D. To decrease the output voltage
-
- G6A09 (A)
- What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier
- connected to a resistive load?
- A. A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
- B. A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
- C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
- D. A steady DC voltage
-
- G6A10 (B)
- A half-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each
- cycle?
- A. 90 degrees
- B. 180 degrees
- C. 270 degrees
- D. 360 degrees
-
- G6A11 (D)
- A full-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each
- cycle?
- A. 90 degrees
- B. 180 degrees
- C. 270 degrees
- D. 360 degrees
-
- SUBELEMENT G7 - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [1 exam question - 1 group]
-
- G7A Power supplies and filters; single-sideband transmitters and
- receivers
-
- G7A01 (B)
- What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?
- A. It improves voltage regulation
- B. It discharges the filter capacitors
- C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
- D. It eliminates ground-loop current
-
- G7A02 (A)
- Where is a power-supply bleeder resistor connected?
- A. Across the filter capacitor
- B. Across the power-supply input
- C. Between the transformer primary and secondary windings
- D. Across the inductor in the output filter
-
- G7A03 (D)
- What components are used in a power-supply filter network?
- A. Diodes
- B. Transformers and transistors
- C. Quartz crystals
- D. Capacitors and inductors
-
- G7A04 (D)
- What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier
- in a full-wave power supply?
- A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply
- B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
- C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
- D. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
-
- G7A05 (D)
- What should be the peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier
- in a half-wave power supply?
- A. One-quarter to one-half the normal peak output voltage of the
- power supply
- B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
- C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
- D. One to two times the normal peak output voltage of the power
- supply
-
- G7A06 (B)
- What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to
- the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?
- A. Substantially higher
- B. About the same
- C. Substantially lower
- D. Twice the transmission line impedance
-
- G7A07 (B)
- In a typical single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit
- processes signals from the balanced modulator and sends signals
- to the mixer?
- A. Carrier oscillator
- B. Filter
- C. IF amplifier
- D. RF amplifier
-
- G7A08 (D)
- In a single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes
- signals from the carrier oscillator and the speech amplifier and
- sends signals to the filter?
- A. Mixer
- B. Detector
- C. IF amplifier
- D. Balanced modulator
-
- G7A09 (C)
- In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit
- processes signals from the RF amplifier and the local oscillator
- and sends signals to the IF filter?
- A. Balanced modulator
- B. IF amplifier
- C. Mixer
- D. Detector
-
- G7A10 (D)
- In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit
- processes signals from the IF amplifier and the BFO and sends
- signals to the AF amplifier?
- A. RF oscillator
- B. IF filter
- C. Balanced modulator
- D. Detector
-
- G7A11 (B)
- In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit
- processes signals from the IF filter and sends signals to the
- detector?
- A. RF oscillator
- B. IF amplifier
- C. Mixer
- D. BFO
-
- SUBELEMENT G8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [2 exam questions - 2
- groups]
-
- G8A Signal information, AM, FM, single and double sideband and
- carrier, bandwidth, modulation envelope, deviation,
- overmodulation
-
- G8A01 (D)
- What type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an RF
- wave for the purpose of conveying information?
- A. Frequency modulation
- B. Phase modulation
- C. Amplitude-rectification modulation
- D. Amplitude modulation
-
- G8A02 (B)
- What type of modulation system changes the phase of an RF wave
- for the purpose of conveying information?
- A. Pulse modulation
- B. Phase modulation
- C. Phase-rectification modulation
- D. Amplitude modulation
-
- G8A03 (D)
- What type of modulation system changes the frequency of an RF
- wave for the purpose of conveying information?
- A. Phase-rectification modulation
- B. Frequency-rectification modulation
- C. Amplitude modulation
- D. Frequency modulation
-
- G8A04 (B)
- What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to
- an RF power amplifier?
- A. Multiplex modulation
- B. Phase modulation
- C. Amplitude modulation
- D. Pulse modulation
-
- G8A05 (D)
- what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope)
- of the RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating audio?
- A. Frequency shift keying
- B. Pulse modulation
- C. Frequency modulation
- D. Amplitude modulation
-
- G8A06 (C)
- How much is the carrier suppressed below peak output power in a
- single-sideband phone transmission?
- A. No more than 20 dB
- B. No more than 30 dB
- C. At least 40 dB
- D. At least 60 dB
-
- G8A07 (C)
- What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-sideband
- phone transmission?
- A. Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information
- content
- B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower
- distortion
- C. More power can be put into the sidebands
- D. Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband
- suppressed-carrier signal
-
- G8A08 (A)
- Which popular phone emission uses the narrowest frequency
- bandwidth?
- A. Single-sideband
- B. Double-sideband
- C. Phase-modulated
- D. Frequency-modulated
-
- G8A09 (D)
- What happens to the signal of an overmodulated single-sideband or
- double-sideband phone transmitter?
- A. It becomes louder with no other effects
- B. It occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency response
- C. It has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio
- D. It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth
-
- G8A10 (B)
- How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a
- single-sideband phone transmitter?
- A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
- B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks
- C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks
- D. For a dip in plate current
-
- G8A11 (C)
- What is meant by flattopping in a single-sideband phone
- transmission?
- A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
- B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly
- adjusted
- C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive
- D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
-
- G8B Frequency mixing, multiplication, bandwidths, HF data
- communications
-
- G8B01 (A)
- What receiver stage combines a 14.25-MHz input signal with a
- 13.795-MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455-kHz intermediate
- frequency (IF) signal?
- A. Mixer
- B. BFO
- C. VFO
- D. Multiplier
-
- G8B02 (B)
- If a receiver mixes a 13.800-MHz VFO with a 14.255-MHz received
- signal to produce a 455-kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal,
- what type of interference will a 13.345-MHz signal produce in the
- receiver?
- A. Local oscillator
- B. Image response
- C. Mixer interference
- D. Intermediate interference
-
- G8B03 (A)
- What stage in a transmitter would change a 5.3-MHz input signal
- to 14.3 MHz?
- A. A mixer
- B. A beat frequency oscillator
- C. A frequency multiplier
- D. A linear translator
-
- G8B04 (D)
- What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that
- selects a harmonic of an HF signal to reach the desired operating
- frequency?
- A. Mixer
- B. Reactance modulator
- C. Preemphasis network
- D. Multiplier
-
- G8B05 (C)
- Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz?
- A. The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low
- B. Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels
- C. The bandwidth would exceed FCC limits
- D. The frequency stability would not be adequate
-
- G8B06 (D)
- What is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission having a
- 5-kHz deviation and a 3-kHz modulating frequency?
- A. 3 kHz
- B. 5 kHz
- C. 8 kHz
- D. 16 kHz
-
- G8B07 (B)
- What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz
- reactance-modulated oscillator in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz
- FM-phone transmitter?
- A. 41.67 Hz
- B. 416.7 Hz
- C. 5 kHz
- D. 12 kHz
-
- G8B08 (C)
- How is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK signal?
- A. The frequency shift in hertz must be at least four times the
- keying speed in WPM
- B. The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of keying
- speed
- C. Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts
- D. Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts
-
- G8B09 (B)
- What do RTTY, Morse code, AMTOR and packet communications have in
- common?
- A. They are multipath communications
- B. They are digital communications
- C. They are analog communications
- D. They are only for emergency communications
-
- G8B10 (C)
- What is the duty cycle required of a transmitter when sending
- Mode B (FEC) AMTOR?
- A. 50%
- B. 75%
- C. 100%
- D. 125%
-
- G8B11 (D)
- In what segment of the 20-meter band are most AMTOR operations
- found?
- A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
- B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
- C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
- D. At the bottom of the RTTY segment, near 14.075 MHz
-
- SUBELEMENT G9 - ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [4 exam questions - 4
- groups]
-
- G9A Yagi antennas - physical dimensions, impedance matching
- radiation patterns, directivity and major lobes
-
- G9A01 (A)
- How can the SWR bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be
- increased?
- A. Use larger diameter elements
- B. Use closer element spacing
- C. Use traps on the elements
- D. Use tapered-diameter elements
-
- G9A02 (B)
- Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna
- for 14.0 MHz?
- A. 17 feet
- B. 33 feet
- C. 35 feet
- D. 66 feet
-
- G9A03 (B)
- Approximately how long is the director element of a Yagi antenna
- for 21.1 MHz?
- A. 42 feet
- B. 21 feet
- C. 17 feet
- D. 10.5 feet
-
- G9A04 (C)
- Approximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna
- for 28.1 MHz?
- A. 8.75 feet
- B. 16.6 feet
- C. 17.5 feet
- D. 35 feet
-
- G9A05 (B)
- Which statement about a three-element Yagi antenna is true?
- A. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
- B. The director is normally the shortest parasitic element
- C. The driven element is the longest parasitic element
- D. Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth
-
- G9A06 (A)
- What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding
- directors to a Yagi antenna?
- A. Gain increases
- B. SWR increases
- C. Weight decreases
- D. Windload decreases
-
- G9A07 (D)
- What are some advantages of a Yagi with wide element spacing?
- A. High gain, lower loss and a low SWR
- B. High front-to-back ratio and lower input resistance
- C. Shorter boom length, lower weight and wind resistance
- D. High gain, less critical tuning and wider bandwidth
-
- G9A08 (C)
- Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radio communications on the
- 20-meter band?
- A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the
- horizontal plane
- B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a
- dipole or vertical antenna
- C. It helps reduce interference from other stations off to the
- side or behind
- D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the
- HF bands
-
- G9A09 (C)
- What does "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a
- Yagi antenna?
- A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
- B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to
- the reflectors and directors
- C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to
- the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
- D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to
- the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction
-
- G9A10 (C)
- What is the "main lobe" of a Yagi antenna radiation pattern?
- A. The direction of least radiation from the antenna
- B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
- C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the
- antenna
- D. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating
- element
-
- G9A11 (A)
- What is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi
- antenna?
- A. Optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements
- B. Use RG-58 feed line
- C. Use a reactance bridge to measure the antenna performance
- from each direction around the antenna
- D. Avoid using towers higher than 30 feet above the ground
-
- G9B Loop antennas - physical dimensions, impedance matching,
- radiation patterns, directivity and major lobes
-
- G9B01 (B)
- Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna
- driven element for 21.4 MHz?
- A. 1.17 feet
- B. 11.7 feet
- C. 47 feet
- D. 469 feet
-
- G9B02 (A)
- Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna
- driven element for 14.3 MHz?
- A. 17.6 feet
- B. 23.4 feet
- C. 70.3 feet
- D. 175 feet
-
- G9B03 (B)
- Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna
- reflector element for 29.6 MHz?
- A. 8.23 feet
- B. 8.7 feet
- C. 9.7 feet
- D. 34.8 feet
-
- G9B04 (B)
- Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop
- antenna driven element for 28.7 MHz?
- A. 8.75 feet
- B. 11.7 feet
- C. 23.4 feet
- D. 35 feet
-
- G9B05 (C)
- Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop
- antenna driven element for 24.9 MHz?
- A. 10.99 feet
- B. 12.95 feet
- C. 13.45 feet
- D. 40.36 feet
-
- G9B06 (C)
- Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop
- antenna reflector element for 14.1 MHz?
- A. 18.26 feet
- B. 23.76 feet
- C. 24.35 feet
- D. 73.05 feet
-
- G9B07 (A)
- Which statement about two-element delta loops and quad antennas
- is true?
- A. They compare favorably with a three-element Yagi
- B. They perform poorly above HF
- C. They perform very well only at HF
- D. They are effective only when constructed using insulated wire
-
- G9B08 (C)
- Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation
- characteristics of a cubical-quad antenna?
- A. The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but
- less directivity in the vertical plane
- B. The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but
- more directivity in the vertical plane
- C. The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical
- planes
- D. The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical
- planes
-
- G9B09 (D)
- Moving the feed point of a multielement quad antenna from a side
- parallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will
- have what effect?
- A. It will significantly increase the antenna feed-point
- impedance
- B. It will significantly decrease the antenna feed-point
- impedance
- C. It will change the antenna polarization from vertical to
- horizontal
- D. It will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to
- vertical
-
- G9B10 (C)
- What does the term "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in
- reference to a delta-loop antenna?
- A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
- B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to
- the reflectors and directors
- C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to
- the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
- D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to
- the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction
-
- G9B11 (C)
- What is the "main lobe" of a delta-loop antenna radiation
- pattern?
- A. The direction of least radiation from an antenna
- B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
- C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the
- antenna
- D. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating
- element
-
- G9C Random wire antennas - physical dimensions, impedance
- matching, radiation patterns, directivity and major lobes;
- feedpoint impedance of 1/2-wavelength dipole and 1/4-wavelength
- vertical antennas
-
- G9C01 (A)
- What type of multiband transmitting antenna does NOT require a
- feed line?
- A. A random-wire antenna
- B. A triband Yagi antenna
- C. A delta-loop antenna
- D. A Beverage antenna
-
- G9C02 (D)
- What is one advantage of using a random-wire antenna?
- A. It is more efficient than any other kind of antenna
- B. It will keep RF energy out of your station
- C. It doesn't need an impedance matching network
- D. It is a multiband antenna
-
- G9C03 (B)
- What is one disadvantage of a random-wire antenna?
- A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength
- B. You may experience RF feedback in your station
- C. It usually produces vertically polarized radiation
- D. You must use an inverted-T matching network for multiband
- operation
-
- G9C04 (D)
- What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a
- ground-plane antenna?
- A. It lowers the radiation angle
- B. It brings the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms
- C. It increases the radiation angle
- D. It brings the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms
-
- G9C05 (B)
- What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane
- antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-
- sloping?
- A. It decreases
- B. It increases
- C. It stays the same
- D. It approaches zero
-
- G9C06 (A)
- What is the low-angle radiation pattern of an ideal
- half-wavelength dipole HF antenna installed parallel to the
- earth?
- A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
- B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
- C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
- D. It is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna, and one
- larger lobe on the other side
-
- G9C07 (B)
- How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal)
- radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?
- A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
- B. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high,
- reflected radio waves from the ground significantly distort the
- pattern
- C. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
- D. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high,
- radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
-
- G9C08 (D)
- If a slightly shorter parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength
- away from an HF dipole antenna, what effect will this have on the
- antenna's radiation pattern?
- A. The radiation pattern will not be affected
- B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel
- to the two elements
- C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from
- the ground
- D. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, toward the
- parasitic element
-
- G9C09 (B)
- If a slightly longer parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength
- away from an HF dipole antenna, what effect will this have on the
- antenna's radiation pattern?
- A. The radiation pattern will not be affected
- B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, away from
- the parasitic element, toward the dipole
- C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from
- the ground
- D. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel
- to the two elements
-
- G9C10 (B)
- Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical
- antenna system be placed?
- A. As high as possible above the ground
- B. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
- C. Parallel to the antenna element
- D. At the top of the antenna
-
-
- *** We (ARRL) Recommend - Do Not Use The Following Question ***
-
- G9C11 (D)
- If you are transmitting from a ground-mounted vertical antenna,
- which of the following is an important reason for people to
- stay away from it?
- A. To avoid skewing the radiation pattern
- B. To avoid changes to the antenna feed-point impedance
- C. To avoid excessive grid current
- D. To avoid exposure to RF radiation
-
- ******************************************
-
-
- G9D Popular antenna feed lines - characteristic impedance and
- impedance matching; SWR calculations
-
- G9D01 (A)
- What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a
- parallel-conductor antenna feed line?
- A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the
- radius of the conductors
- B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the
- length of the line
- C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
- D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
-
- G9D02 (B)
- What is the typical characteristic impedance of coaxial cables
- used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?
- A. 25 and 30 ohms
- B. 50 and 75 ohms
- C. 80 and 100 ohms
- D. 500 and 750 ohms
-
- G9D03 (D)
- What is the characteristic impedance of flat-ribbon TV-type
- twinlead?
- A. 50 ohms
- B. 75 ohms
- C. 100 ohms
- D. 300 ohms
-
- G9D04 (C)
- What is the typical cause of power being reflected back down an
- antenna feed line?
- A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
- B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
- C. A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna
- feed-point impedance
- D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
-
- G9D05 (D)
- What must be done to prevent standing waves of voltage and
- current on an antenna feed line?
- A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
- B. The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical
- quarter-wavelengths long
- C. The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half-
- wavelengths long
- D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the
- characteristic impedance of the feed line
-
- G9D06 (C)
- If a center-fed dipole antenna is fed by parallel-conductor feed
- line, how would an inductively coupled matching network be used
- between the two?
- A. It would not normally be used with parallel-conductor feed
- lines
- B. It would be used to increase the SWR to an acceptable level
- C. It would be used to match the unbalanced transmitter output
- to the balanced parallel-conductor feed line
- D. It would be used at the antenna feed point to tune out the
- radiation resistance
-
- G9D07 (A)
- If a 160-meter signal and a 2-meter signal pass through the same
- coaxial cable, how will the attenuation of the two signals
- compare?
- A. It will be greater at 2 meters
- B. It will be less at 2 meters
- C. It will be the same at both frequencies
- D. It will depend on the emission type in use
-
- G9D08 (D)
- In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
- A. Bels/1000 ft
- B. dB/1000 ft
- C. Bels/100 ft
- D. dB/100 ft
-
- G9D09 (A)
- What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a
- 50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 200-ohm
- feed-point impedance?
- A. 4:1
- B. 1:4
- C. 2:1
- D. 1:2
-
- G9D10 (D)
- What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a
- 50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 10-ohm feed-point
- impedance?
- A. 2:1
- B. 50:1
- C. 1:5
- D. 5:1
-
- G9D11 (D)
- What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a
- 50-ohm feed line to a resonant antenna having a 50-ohm feed-point
- impedance?
- A. 2:1
- B. 50:50
- C. 0:0
- D. 1:1
-